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Old 15-01-2016, 09:18 AM   #48
iamawaveofthesea
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lesactive View Post
Ya know, I see references to some of the things mentioned in the video when I search for evidence, but no evidence. There is no evidence, for instance, that Verdi or Mozart composed in any particular tuning such as 432, as is claimed in the video. Both composers travelled extensively around Europe and employed various tunings depending upon the standard to the area or orchestra. There was no universal standard whatsoever. If anything, 432 is mathematically convenient in relation to other things but not necessarily to music even though it is divisible by both 8 and 12.

Suppose I have a tuning fork set at A432, in order to tune an instrument to that frequency I would have to recreate the exact conditions in which the fork was made. The standard temperature(s) for tuning is between 68F and 70F. Any warmer and the pitch lowers, any cooler and the pitch rises causing a deviation from the original frequency. 432 may be a 'magic' number in some regards but it only refers to middle 'A' at a certain temperature and no other note. The other notes are merely relative to the middle A.

That being said, I have seen the sonic differences on oscilloscopes when comparing 440Hz tuning to 432 Hz and it is soon obvious that frequencies interact with each other more compatibly at 432 so that part makes sense. Some of music is math, some is not.

What bothers me is this insistence that 432 is the original tuning that we should somehow get back to using. Pythagoras certainly didn't know about it and he invented the scale. It's a decent tuning standard but I see no reason to start revising history to support its use. To me, shifting the pitch of music written in a certain tuning standard does the composer a disservice. That's kind of like saying, "yeah, the music's pretty good but it's so much better this way." I have a feeling that both Mozart and Verdi would laugh that a believer in 432 would presume to know how much better their music would sound. Cuz, you know, they wrote it. They had certain sounds in mind which would coincide with the standards of the time and 432 was not it.
How did pythagoras not know about it?

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Last edited by iamawaveofthesea; 15-01-2016 at 09:19 AM.
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