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john white
24-08-2008, 01:20 AM
Ok

I've been doing research into the Freeman concept recently and one core argument has been relating to the biblical origins of "freeman" status

Now straight away I'm not saying anyone has to see the Bible or Jesus as anything else than mythological/allegorical: so no panty twisting please

This is simply part of understanding the history and heritage which has informed the thoughts of freemen through the ages

Oaths

The third/fourth exposition is about oaths. While Gundry feels that this follows the discussion of divorce since Deuteronomy discusses these things one after another, though in reverse order, other scholars feel that it is simply a natural progression, as one of the major legal issues of the day was over marriage vows.

The exposition opens with a quote from the Septuagint translation of the Old Testament, the first half of which appears to come from Leviticus 19:12 and the second half from Psalms 50:14. However, Psalm 50:14 is about vows, not oaths; Jewish scholars made a distinction between the two concepts. Schweizer feels that the wording implies that Jesus is only discussing oaths associated with vows, and that he never speaks against the oaths of innocence or truthfulness that were not linked with vows. While the text literally condemns perjury, it can also mean break an oath, and some individuals translate it much less restrictively as do not make vows rashly.

After having made the quote, Matthew presents Jesus as extracting from it the rule never swear and then moves directly to examples, quoted from the Old Testament:

* Not to swear by heaven (Isaiah 66:1) - at the time one view held that, as expressed in M. Shebuoth, while oaths to God were binding, oaths to other subjects, such as heaven, were not. Schweizer feels that Jesus is here indicating that swearing by heaven is swearing by God with heaven being God's throne.
* Not to swear by the earth (quoted from Isaiah 66:1) - Schweizer feels that Jesus is here indicating that swearing by earth is swearing by God with earth being God's foot stool
* Not to swear by Jerusalem the city of the great King (quoted from Psalms 48:2) - this could be linked to the practice of turning toward Jerusalem when swearing an oath. The term great king may either be a reference to David or to God, with Christians usually interpreting it as the latter. Schweizer feels that Jesus is here indicating that swearing by Jerusalem is the same as swearing by God, owing to it being God's city.
* Not to swear by your head, because you can't make one hair white or black - this does not, according to Schweizer, take into account hair dye, which was a common and well known practice even in that time.

Very few Christians interpret this exposition to literally mean that all oaths are prohibited, since in other parts of the Bible oaths are looked upon more favourably. Paul for example is described in 2 Corinthians and Galatians as swearing oaths. Avoiding the literal meaning, most Christian thinkers have concluded that by never swear, Jesus is using hyperbole to emphasise his point or failing to mention exceptions to this rule that would have been implicit to his audience. Thus most Christian churches believe that only false and vain oaths are prohibited, and John Calvin argued that only oaths counter to God are wrong. Several important Christian groups do not however accept such re-interpretations, preferring to uphold what the text actually says; most notably the Quakers and Mennonites firmly reject all oaths, a stance that has led to their persecution by governments that insist on oath taking.

According to Matthew, Jesus then instructs people to only respond with yes, yes; no, no. The exact meaning of this is much disputed, and while one reading is that you should simply always answer with yes or no, as is clearly the view of James 5:12 where this whole exposition is reiterated, the Slavonic Enoch, however, states that a double yes or a double no were themselves forms of oath, and so by this understanding Jesus is not banning all oaths, but outlining an example of an oath that is permissible. Jesus is described as going on to say that whatever is more than this response constitutes something of the evil one, which in other parts of the New Testament are frequently used to refer to the devil, and Schweizer believes that the implication is merely that swearing was evil, many Christians do not see a theological difference. The formula yes, yes; no, no also appears in 2 Cor 1:17. According to Jewish Encyclopedia: New Testament: Misunderstood Passages: "...the sentence, "Let your speech be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay" (Matt. v. 37, R. V.), which is derived from Lev. xix. 36 (Sifra, Ḳedoshim, viii. 7; B. M. 49a; comp. Tos. Soṭah vii. 2; Giṭ. 35a; Num. R. xxii.)..."

I just wanted to get at the core argument on jurisdiction: (that is "Juris," in the original Latin meaning "oath.", "Diction" meaning "spoken.") in some depth

Here are the four conditions that Jesus sets to understand his phrase "swear no oaths"

* Not to swear by heaven
* Not to swear by the earth
* Not to swear by Jerusalem
* Not to swear by your head

This is Jesus's definition of "dont swear"

I think that the text is clear: he meant it

Don't swear by heaven:

Dont give responsibility for your life up to God to dictate your actions

Dont swear by the earth

Appreciate it sure, and care for it, why not? But dont swear on the material world, know that it is the creation, but not the source of creation

Don't swear by Jerusalem (the city, the state)

Don't give your mind away to governments and systems to laws made by men that never include the words Love, Truth, or compassion

Don't swear by your head

Don't swear by the notions you have in your head, politics and nationalism ad flags and clans, gurus and leaders.

Don't swear:


AT ALL


EVER


Don't ever give away your god given freedom, free will and self responsibility

Now THAT, I feel, is a message for our times :)

john white
24-08-2008, 11:33 AM
^^^ :)

grenadene
24-08-2008, 12:05 PM
Its good to see the rise in interest in the Freeman concept. Does anyone have a good central point of information? There are a lot of differences in US and UK law and new legislation is changing faster than my socks. Its a massive field to research so any further guidance mucho appreciated :D

duckingdafta
24-08-2008, 12:16 PM
the whole argument/discussion is about not allowing yourself to be drawn into the jurisdiction of another outsider law you don't stand under... this is why one of the first questions you will get in court is from a clerk (not a magistrate or Judge ever) asking "Do You 'Understand' the charge put to you".. the moment you answer "Yes", you've allowed yourself to be under their jurisdiction... when asked who is representing you you say No persons are representing me.. then you will be asked are you representing yourself.. the answer NO!.. you ARE yourself... you are not representing the third (admiralty name/straw man or whatever you call it..cap letter)... oh.. and never enter a plea either if charged with something...that plea is under the stand of their laws too

john white
24-08-2008, 04:25 PM
spot on lads

I find the whole "sworn oath" meaning of jurisdiction fascinating too.... that is to say a court only has jurisdiction where the person (not human) being tried by that court has sworn an oath to be bound by it